The categorical imperative is categorical insofar as it is how we should act at all times. Contrast this with a hypothetical duty, which we only have if we have some other goal. Kant thinks that the categorical imperative shows that we have a perfect duty to keep promises and to preserve our own lives. In other words, you always have a duty not to break promises and not to kill yourself. Let's see how the categorical imperative shows that we have a perfect duty to do these things.
In order to see if we have a perfect duty to preserve our own lives, we can ask if we could ever universalize a rule according to which we would kill ourselves. For example, "It is ok to kill myself because it is good for me." Kant says that it is contradictory to make such a law universal. If I kill myself, then there is NO good for me. There can be nothing good for me when I am dead because I am no longer alive to have things be good or bad for me. Likewise, if everyone were allowed to kill themselves because it is 'good for them', then we would have a similar problem. There could be no 'good' for anyone if there is nobody to have things be good for them! Since we cannot universalize a law that condones suicide, then we have a perfect duty to avoid doing that thing.
The same can be said for promise-breaking. To make a promise is to commit to do something. You make this commitment to another person, who accepts your promise as evidence of your commitment. Now if we tried to universalize "It is ok to break promises", then this would mean that nobody must follow through with their commitments. If people felt like they could break commitments whenever they wanted, then nobody would believe anybody when they make promises. So making a promise becomes impossible in itself, since making a promise requires that somebody believes my promise and takes my promise as evidence of my commitment.

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I will acknowledge that parts of this almost make Kant sound like a consequentialist. To clarify, the question is not so much about what would happen if we did universalize a moral rule. Rather, the question for Kant is about whether it is a logical possibility to consider a rule as a universal law. For some maxims, it is logically impossible to even conceive of them as a universal law because doing so results in a logical contradiction or logical impossibility of the law being able to be followed.
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